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MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT: Part 2

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PROJECT MANAGEMENT EXAM MCQ QUESTIONS 1 TO 40 | PART – 2

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1 – 10 MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

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1. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), the scope statement should address all of the following issues EXCEPT:

Select one:
a. project constraints.
b. project assumptions.s
c. project exclusions.
d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project.
e. project deliverables.

Ans – d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project

2. Fill in the blank. The _____ is the difference between the additional money spent on prevention and the corresponding reduction in the cost of failure.

Select one:
a. cost-benefit analysis
b. implicit cost
c. cost of quality
d. variable cost
e. cost-utility analysis

Ans- c. cost of quality

3. Which of the following project baselines provides the basis for measurement of the expected cash flow against requirements over time and is often displayed as an S curve?

Select one:
a. Schedule baseline
b. Cost performance baseline
c. Scope baseline
d. Plan baseline
e. Initiation baseline

Ans – b. Cost performance baseline

4. The conceptual estimate is developed with the least amount of knowledge. When more information is known, the project team can develop a:

Select one:
a. work breakdown structure
b. critical estimate
c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate
d. scope of work
e. ballpark estimate

Ans – c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

5. Petri is working for Nokia in Finland. He has completed 10 months of his 12-month project, budgeted at $800,000. His earned value analysis shows that variance at completion is $75,000. What is the estimate at completion value for this project?

Select one:
a. 725,000
b. -725,000
c. -$875,000
d. $875,000
e. $800,000

Ans – d. $875,000

6. Which of the following statements about flowcharts is true?

Select one:
a. Most flowcharts use one width of column to represent a category, while the vertical axis represents the frequency of occurrence.
b. If a particular method is a standard of quality, you can compare your organization’s quality plan to it by flowcharting.
c. A flowchart shows the ratio of cost of increasing quality to the resulting benefit.
d. If some of the functions of a project are repetitive, flowcharting can be used to identify trends.
e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

Ans – e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

7. During the project meeting, the project manager had to leave earlier due to a family emergency. Afterwards, a few team members started to argue, so the project meeting took very long without producing outcomes. What is the possible reason that resulted in the inefficient project meeting in this scenario?

Select one:
a. No project team ground rules were set up.
b. The current communications plan was very poorly designed.
c. The absence of project manager resulted in inefficiency.
d. There was no incentive mechanism set up to encourage team members to take over more responsibilities.
e. The project team was not very cooperative.

Ans – a. No project team ground rules were set up.

mcq for project management

8. Fill in the blank. Work breakdown structure (WBS) is a ______________ of the work with increasing detail in each layer.

Select one:
a. layered description
b. step change
c. ballpark estimate
d. project execution plan
e. project logic diagram

Ans – a. layered description

9. According to the PMBOK guide which of the following statements is right in terms of using reserve analysis to determine a project budget ?

Select one:
a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.
b. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
c. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to determine your project budget.
d. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
e. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Ans – a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project costs, which are part of your project budget.

10. Fill in the blanks. It is during the ______________ phase that the decision should be made regarding whether the project should continue. During this phase, ____________ must be considered and weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success.

Select one:
a. completion, cost
b. closeout, resources
c. execution, performance
d. planning, timing
e. initiation, risk

Ans – e. initiation, risk

11 TO 20 MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

11. What is the most critical aspect in developing a project plan that meets project specifications within the timeframe and at the lowest costs?

Select one:
a. Assessing risk management
b. Providing documents that specifically comply with the quality standards in use
c. Emphasizing error prevention and customer satisfaction
d. Requiring commitment to quality by all the employees and business partners
e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project

Ans – e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project

12. Fill in the blank. Risk represents the likelihood that an event will happen during the life of the project that will negatively affect the ________________ of project goals.

Select one:
a. scope creep
b. achievement
c. float
d. rough order of magnitude
e. slack

Ans – b. achievement

13. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all the work in the project is included?

Select one:
a. Create a contingency plan.
b. Create a risk management plan.
c. Create a WBS.
d. Create a statement of work.
e. Create a scope statement.

Ans – c. Create a WBS

14. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing the project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project charter and scope.

Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection

Ans – b. start-up

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15. After the celebration of the successful milestone completion, a project manager will often do which of the following?

Select one:
a. Continue to increase the intensity of the project to achieve the next milestone.
b. Continue to follow the exact same project plan that helped the team achieve the milestone.
c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
d. Select an upcoming key event and designate it as the next milestone.
e. Stretch the goals of the project team, making them more tough and rigorous.

Ans – c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.

16. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase of the project life cycle?

Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis

Ans – d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities

17. What is the first step in project planning?

Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.

Ans – a. Establish the objectives and scope.

18. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation

Ans – e. initiation

19. According to PMBOK, project management process groups are iterative, which was originally defined by Walter Shewhart and later modified by Edward Deming. Generally, one outcome from a previous process can serve as input for the next process. Which of the following best identifies with the description of this concept?

Select one:
a. Project life cycle
b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle
c. Project phases
d. PM processes
e. HR process cycle

Ans – b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle

20. Determining the policies that are needed for the smooth execution of a project relates to which of the following agenda items of alignment sessions?

Select one:
a. Developing a common understanding of the project purpose
b. Establishing trust among team members
c. Engaging stakeholders in dialogue
d. Developing role clarification on projects
e. Agreeing on the means and methods for accomplishing the purpose

Ans – d. Developing role clarification on projects

21 TO 30 MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

21. Which of the following is true about management meetings?

Select one:
a. They are short meetings to develop a common understanding of what the short-term priorities are for the project.
b. They focus on short-term activities, usually less than a week in duration.
c. They are purely fact-based meetings with a left-brain type focus.
d. They have very little dialogue except to ask clarification questions.
e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making adjustments to plans in response to new information.

Ans – e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making adjustments to plans in response to new information.

22. Do it because I said to” is the mantra for project managers who use _____ as the default approach to resolve conflict.

Select one:
a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. accommodating
d. forcing
e. avoiding

Ans – d. forcing

23. A(n) _ is a review of the quality plan, procedures, data collection, and analysis by an outside group. Select one:

a. scope document
b. project appraisal
c. cost performance index
d. analogous estimate
e. quality audit

Ans – e. quality audit

24. Which of the following is an advantage of including the project manager in the project evaluation process?

Select one:
a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used when making decisions about the project during later phases.
b. It may indicate a need for project manager skills and experiences that are different from the project manager who is involved in the evaluation.
c. It allows the parent organization to select a project manager whose abilities match the complexity profile of the project.
d. It improves the project manager’s level of understanding about the project and ensures that the chosen project manager is the most suitable individual for executing the project.
e. It helps achieve greater buy-in from the top management of the parent organization.

Ans – a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used when making decisions about the project during later phases.

25. Which of the following statements is true regarding contracts?

Select one:
a. They are the filters through which project members screen information that is shared.
b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.
c. The success of larger, more complex projects is more dependent on contracts than on relationships of trust.
d. Without contracts, projects that are highly dependent on an information-rich environment will suffer.
e. Contracts promote the growth of a trusting project culture.

Ans – b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.

26. Role clarification facilitates the development of all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:
a. communication planning.
b. key milestones.
c. work flow organization.
d. approval processes.
e. role boundary spanning processes.

Ans – b. key milestones.

27. During a new project planning process to sequence activities, the project manager, Nate, decides to use the precedence diagraming method to show the identified activity dependencies. Which of the following logical relationships is Nate’s least favorite choice?

Select one:
a. Finish-to-start
b. Start-to-finish
c. Finish-to-finish
d. Start-to-start
e. All of these answers

Ans – b. Start-to-finish

28. In today’s global society, many projects become global. To effectively work together, global virtual teams have been used in practice. As a project manager for a global project, Jim was told by a local team member, Shan, that women are not allowed to hold positions of authority because of the culture of his home country, since Jim hired a female local assistant project manager. How would you respond to this situation as a PMP?

Select one:
a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global project.
b. Replace a local female assistant PM with a male candidate.
c. Do nothing.
d. Ask all project team members to attend a training session on treating different gender members for this global project equally.
e. Fire the local team member because of his discrimination behavior.

Ans – a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global project.

29. Which of the following is true about a project manager?

Select one:
a. Project managers analyze work processes and explore opportunities to make improvements.
b. Project managers are focused on the long-term health of the organization.
c. Project managers are process focused.
d. Project managers are goal oriented.
e. Project managers standardize the work processes.

Ans – d. Project managers are goal oriented.

30. Shauna has recently been appointed as a project manager for Project SkyNorth, which is regarded as an important project in her organization. During the project planning meeting, Shauna is capable of allocating key resources and personnel that she needs for this project. Which organizational structure is best for Shauna’s company?

Select one:
a. Balanced matrix organization
b. Matrix organization
c. Functional organization
d. Projectized organization
e. Hierarchical organization

Ans – d. Projectized organization

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MCQ 31 TO 40

31. Complete the following statement. The method of incorporating change into project planning and execution processes is called the:

Select one:
a. project logic diagram.
b. change management process.
c. milestone schedule
d. critical path
e. rough order of magnitude

Ans – b. change management process

32. BCR>1 indicates which of the following?

Select one:
a. Benefits are greater than the costs.
b. Costs are greater than the benefits.
c. Costs and benefits are well balanced.
d. Benefits are less than the costs
e. Costs are less than the benefits.

Ans – a. Benefits are greater than the costs.

33. Which of the following establishes key dates throughout the life of a project that must be met for the project to finish on time?

Select one:
a. Critical path
b. Ballpark estimate
c. Pert diagram
d. Slack chart
e. Milestone schedule

Ans – e. Milestone schedule

34. Which of the following statements about risk is true?

Select one:
a. Project risk focuses on identifying, assessing, and eliminating the risks on the project.
b. Risk management is all about eliminating risk.
c. Project risk is an uncertain event that, even if it occurs, has no effect on project objectives.
d. There are no risk-free projects.
e. Risk management involves identification, evaluation, and elevation of risk

Ans – d. There are no risk-free projects.

35. Why are changes to the project scope necessary?

Select one:
a. To understand reports
b. To reflect new information
c. To begin planning the project
d. To teach team members what they need to know about their jobs
e. To establish a trusting project culture

Ans – b. To reflect new information

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36. Fill in the blank. Crashing refers to when the task duration’s are __ along the critical path to meet the project completion date.

Select one:
a. scope creep
b. floated
c. slack
d. compressed
e. expedited

Ans – d. compressed

37. An Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of $100000 on a potential project event in the project means which of the following?

Select one:
a. A number that can be ignored
b. An opportunity that must be explored
c. Actual losses on the event
d. Actual investment returns on the event
e. A threat that must be considered to minimize the project risk

Ans – b. An opportunity that must be explored

38. Which of the following is a form of trust that is built on the examination of the person’s motives and the conclusion that he or she is not hostile?

Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. Non-manipulative trust
d. Unequivocal liberality
e. High cost of lying

Ans – b. Attribution of benevolence

39. When calculating EVM, Peter noticed that the cumulative planned value is 150% of the cumulative earned value. What does this mean?

Select one:
a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.
b. SPI>1, so the project is OK to complete on time.
c. SPI<1, so the project is ahead of time.
d. SPI>1, so the project is behind schedule.
e. SPI>1, so the project is on schedule.

Ans – a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.

40. Fill in the blank. A __ represents the sequence of the activities needed to complete the project.

Select one:
a. work break down structure
b. scope of work
c. project logic diagram
d. run chart
e. step change

Ans – c. project logic diagram

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MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT EXAM PART 1 – Go Here

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